What can be concluded by the fact that the emitted light frequency f(v) of a source with velocity v differs from the frequency f(0) of a non-moving source by f(v) = f(0) / Lorentz-factor?
A) Atomic energy changes by movement
B) Time changes by movement
Answer according to modern physics (generally accepted): _______B)
Answer according to classical and neoclassical physics (VTOE)____A)
Discussion of origin of relativistic Doppler effect
Without the popularity of Einstein there won't be anyone who can be convinced that the logical answer is B), as it is very clear and simple that the scientific answer is A). It is generally accepted that the energy of a moving body changes by the Lorentz factor. So it can be assumed that the energy of the particles of the atom like electrons of the body change by Lorentz-factor. The changed energy level of electrons are the cause for the change of emitted energy. A change of emitted energy is equivalent with a change in frequency. Thus all effects which are currently explained by time dilatation can be explained by classical physics.
Corresponding experiments are: